ExamSpark Class 12 Economics

Mock Test 10 Performance Solutions

Subject: CBSE Class 12 Economics (NCERT Full-Syllabus Practice)

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Detailed Question Analysis

Q1. Which of the following best explains the central problem of an economy?

Correct Answer: Option B (Scarcity of resources relative to wants)

Concept Explanation: The central problem arises because resources are scarce while human wants are unlimited, forcing economies to make choices.

Q2. Which of the following is included while estimating National Income?

Correct Answer: Option C (Commission earned by a broker)

Concept Explanation: Commission earned by a broker is payment for productive services and is included in national income.

Q3. Which market structure is characterized by free entry and exit along with product differentiation?

Correct Answer: Option D (Monopolistic competition)

Concept Explanation: Monopolistic competition has many firms selling differentiated products with free entry and exit.

Q4. When Marginal Cost is rising and lies above Average Cost, Average Cost will:

Correct Answer: Option B (Rise)

Concept Explanation: Marginal Cost pulls Average Cost upward when MC is greater than AC.

Q5. Which of the following is a function of the Reserve Bank of India?

Correct Answer: Option B (Issuing currency notes)

Concept Explanation: The RBI has the sole authority to issue currency notes in India, except one-rupee notes issued by the government.

Q6. The demand for ACs increases sharply during summer season. This is mainly due to:

Correct Answer: Option C (Seasonal factor)

Concept Explanation: Seasonal changes influence consumer demand for certain products such as air conditioners and heaters.

Q7. A producer sells 500 units at \(\mathrm{Rs.\ 40}\) each. Total Revenue earned is:

Correct Answer: Option C (\(\mathrm{Rs.\ 20,000}\))

Concept Explanation: Total Revenue = Price \(\times\) Quantity = 40 \(\times\) 500 = \(\mathrm{Rs.\ 20,000}\).

Q8. During inflation, RBI increases the Cash Reserve Ratio (\(\mathrm{CRR}\)). What is the likely impact?

Correct Answer: Option C (Reduction in liquidity with banks)

Concept Explanation: Higher \(\mathrm{CRR}\) requires banks to keep more reserves with RBI, reducing funds available for lending.

Q9. Which of the following is an example of complementary goods?

Correct Answer: Option B (Pen and ink)

Concept Explanation: Complementary goods are used together. Pen and ink are jointly consumed.

Q10. Which of the following is a revenue expenditure in government budget?

Correct Answer: Option C (Payment of pensions)

Concept Explanation: Pension payments are recurring expenditures and do not create assets, so they are revenue expenditures.

Q11. Assertion (A): Under perfect competition, firms earn only normal profits in the long run. Reason (R): There is freedom of entry and exit of firms.

Correct Answer: Option A (Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A)

Concept Explanation: Free entry and exit eliminate supernormal profits and losses, leaving firms with only normal profits.

Q12. Assertion (A): Increase in government expenditure can help reduce recessionary conditions. Reason (R): Government expenditure raises aggregate demand in the economy.

Correct Answer: Option A (Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A)

Concept Explanation: Higher government expenditure increases income and demand, helping economic recovery during recession.

Q13. Read the following case carefully: The government reduces GST on essential food items to reduce burden on consumers during high inflation. Which economic objective is mainly targeted?

Correct Answer: Option B (Price stability and consumer welfare)

Concept Explanation: Lower GST reduces prices of essentials, helping control inflation and improving consumer welfare.

Q14. Read the passage carefully: India experiences large inflows of foreign direct investment in technology and manufacturing sectors. Which of the following is the most likely impact?

Correct Answer: Option B (Increase in foreign exchange reserves)

Concept Explanation: FDI brings foreign currency into the country, increasing foreign exchange reserves and investment.

Q15. If \(\mathrm{MPC}\) = 0.75, then \(\mathrm{MPS}\) will be:

Correct Answer: Option C (0.25)

Concept Explanation: \(\mathrm{MPC}+\mathrm{MPS}=1\) \(\mathrm{MPS}\) = 1 - 0.75 = 0.25.

Q16. Which of the following is NOT included in domestic income?

Correct Answer: Option C (Income earned by an Indian company in Japan)

Concept Explanation: Income earned abroad is not part of domestic income because it is generated outside domestic territory.

Q17. A firm under monopoly can influence market price mainly because:

Correct Answer: Option C (Close substitutes are absent)

Concept Explanation: Lack of close substitutes gives monopolists market power to influence prices.

Q18. Which policy is most suitable to control deficient demand?

Correct Answer: Option D (Increase in public investment)

Concept Explanation: Public investment raises aggregate demand, employment, and income during deficient demand conditions.

Q19. If price elasticity of demand is equal to zero, demand is:

Correct Answer: Option B (Perfectly inelastic)

Concept Explanation: Perfectly inelastic demand means quantity demanded remains unchanged regardless of price changes.

Q20. Autonomous investment rises by \(\mathrm{Rs.\ 200\ crore}\) in an economy where \(\mathrm{MPC}\) = 0.8. The resulting increase in national income will be:

Correct Answer: Option D (\(\mathrm{Rs.\ 1,000\ crore}\))

Concept Explanation: \(k=\frac{1}{1-\mathrm{MPC}}\) Multiplier = 1 / (1 - 0.8) = 5 Increase in income = 5 \(\times\) 200 = \(\mathrm{Rs.\ 1,000\ crore}\).

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