ExamSpark Class 12 Economics
Subject: CBSE Class 12 Economics (NCERT Full-Syllabus Practice)
Detailed Question Analysis
Q1. Which of the following is an example of autonomous consumption?
Correct Answer: Option B (Consumption made even when income is zero)
Concept Explanation: Autonomous consumption refers to minimum consumption expenditure incurred even when income is zero, usually financed through savings or borrowing.
Q2. In which market structure does a firm have complete control over the supply of a product?
Correct Answer: Option C (Monopoly)
Concept Explanation: Under monopoly, there is a single seller with full control over market supply and pricing.
Q3. Which of the following is treated as a final good?
Correct Answer: Option C (Bread bought by a household)
Concept Explanation: Bread purchased by a household is used for final consumption and is therefore a final good.
Q4. If Average Product is rising, Marginal Product will be:
Correct Answer: Option C (Greater than Average Product)
Concept Explanation: Marginal Product pulls Average Product upward when MP is greater than AP.
Q5. Which of the following is a direct instrument of monetary policy?
Correct Answer: Option A (Repo rate)
Concept Explanation: Repo rate is controlled by RBI and directly affects lending rates and money supply in the economy.
Q6. A rise in income causes demand for public bus transport to decrease. Public bus transport is likely to be:
Correct Answer: Option B (An inferior good)
Concept Explanation: Inferior goods are goods whose demand falls as consumer income rises.
Q7. A firm's Total Revenue is \(\mathrm{Rs.\ 4,500}\) when it sells 150 units. Average Revenue is:
Correct Answer: Option C (\(\mathrm{Rs.\ 30}\))
Concept Explanation: Average Revenue = Total Revenue / Quantity Sold = 4500 / 150 = \(\mathrm{Rs.\ 30}\).
Q8. The RBI decreases \(\mathrm{CRR}\) during a slowdown in the economy. What is the likely effect?
Correct Answer: Option C (Increase in lending capacity of banks)
Concept Explanation: Lower \(\mathrm{CRR}\) frees more funds for commercial banks, increasing lending and economic activity.
Q9. Which of the following is most likely to shift the supply curve leftward?
Correct Answer: Option C (Increase in excise duty)
Concept Explanation: Higher excise duty increases production cost and reduces supply, shifting the supply curve leftward.
Q10. Which of the following is included in the capital account of Balance of Payments?
Correct Answer: Option C (Foreign direct investment)
Concept Explanation: Capital account records international capital transactions such as foreign investments and loans.
Q11. Assertion (A): Demand for salt is generally price inelastic. Reason (R): Salt constitutes a very small proportion of consumer expenditure.
Correct Answer: Option A (Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A)
Concept Explanation: Since expenditure on salt is very small, price changes have little effect on quantity demanded.
Q12. Assertion (A): Increase in government expenditure can raise aggregate demand. Reason (R): Government expenditure forms a component of aggregate demand.
Correct Answer: Option A (Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A)
Concept Explanation: Government expenditure directly contributes to aggregate demand in the economy.
Q13. Read the following case carefully: A smartphone company launches a new model with advanced features and aggressive advertising. Demand for its older models declines sharply. Which concept best explains this situation?
Correct Answer: Option B (Product differentiation)
Concept Explanation: Product differentiation through innovation and branding influences consumer preferences and demand.
Q14. Read the passage carefully: A country faces persistent inflation. To control it, the central bank increases the repo rate and \(\mathrm{CRR}\) simultaneously. What is the likely objective of these measures?
Correct Answer: Option C (Reduce money supply and inflation)
Concept Explanation: Higher repo rate and \(\mathrm{CRR}\) reduce lending and liquidity, helping control inflationary pressure.
Q15. If Marginal Propensity to Consume is 0.6, the value of Marginal Propensity to Save will be:
Correct Answer: Option B (0.4)
Concept Explanation: \(\mathrm{MPC}+\mathrm{MPS}=1\) \(\mathrm{MPS}\) = 1 - 0.6 = 0.4.
Q16. Which of the following is NOT included while calculating national income?
Correct Answer: Option D (Financial assistance received after a flood)
Concept Explanation: Financial assistance after a flood is a transfer payment and not payment for productive services.
Q17. A perfectly competitive firm is in equilibrium when:
Correct Answer: Option B (Marginal Cost equals Marginal Revenue)
Concept Explanation: Profit is maximized when Marginal Cost equals Marginal Revenue under perfect competition.
Q18. Which fiscal policy measure is most suitable during deficient demand?
Correct Answer: Option C (Increase in government expenditure)
Concept Explanation: Higher government spending boosts aggregate demand and helps reduce recessionary conditions.
Q19. If demand for a product falls sharply after a small increase in price, the demand is:
Correct Answer: Option C (Highly elastic)
Concept Explanation: Large change in demand due to small price change indicates highly elastic demand.
Q20. Investment in an economy rises by \(\mathrm{Rs.\ 400\ crore}\) and \(\mathrm{MPC}\) is 0.75. What will be the total increase in equilibrium income?
Correct Answer: Option D (\(\mathrm{Rs.\ 1,600\ crore}\))
Concept Explanation: \(k=\frac{1}{1-\mathrm{MPC}}\) Multiplier = 1 / (1 - 0.75) = 4 Increase in income = 4 \(\times\) 400 = \(\mathrm{Rs.\ 1,600\ crore}\).