ExamSpark Class 12 Economics

Mock Test 07 Performance Solutions

Subject: CBSE Class 12 Economics (NCERT Full-Syllabus Practice)

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Detailed Question Analysis

Q1. Which of the following is a macroeconomic problem?

Correct Answer: Option C (Unemployment in the economy)

Concept Explanation: Macroeconomics studies economy-wide issues such as unemployment, inflation, and national income.

Q2. Which of the following is treated as a transfer payment?

Correct Answer: Option C (Scholarship given to students by government)

Concept Explanation: Scholarships are transfer payments because they are paid without any direct productive service in return.

Q3. Under perfect competition, the price line facing an individual firm is:

Correct Answer: Option C (Horizontal parallel to X-axis)

Concept Explanation: Since firms are price takers, they can sell any quantity at the prevailing market price, giving a horizontal price line.

Q4. Which of the following is most likely to shift the demand curve for a commodity?

Correct Answer: Option B (Change in consumer income)

Concept Explanation: Consumer income is a determinant of demand and causes a shift in the demand curve.

Q5. If Marginal Revenue is less than Average Revenue, then Average Revenue will:

Correct Answer: Option B (Fall)

Concept Explanation: Marginal Revenue pulls Average Revenue downward when MR is less than AR.

Q6. A company introduces robots in production, reducing the need for manual labor. Which type of unemployment is likely to increase?

Correct Answer: Option B (Structural unemployment)

Concept Explanation: Technological changes may make workers' skills outdated, leading to structural unemployment.

Q7. A farmer sells wheat worth \(\mathrm{Rs.\ 1,20,000}\). Out of this, \(\mathrm{Rs.\ 40,000}\) was spent on seeds, fertilizers, and fuel. Value added by the farmer is:

Correct Answer: Option B (\(\mathrm{Rs.\ 80,000}\))

Concept Explanation: Value Added = Value of Output - Intermediate Consumption = 1,20,000 - 40,000 = \(\mathrm{Rs.\ 80,000}\).

Q8. RBI increases the repo rate to 7\(\%\) from 6\(\%\). Which of the following is the most likely effect?

Correct Answer: Option C (Reduction in credit availability)

Concept Explanation: Higher repo rate increases borrowing cost for banks, reducing lending and money supply.

Q9. A rise in the price of one good causes demand for another good to decrease. The two goods are:

Correct Answer: Option C (Complementary goods)

Concept Explanation: Complementary goods are consumed together. Rise in price of one reduces demand for the other.

Q10. Which of the following is included in revenue receipts of the government?

Correct Answer: Option D (Corporation tax)

Concept Explanation: Corporation tax is a regular source of income for the government and is included in revenue receipts.

Q11. Assertion (A): Under monopoly, there is no close substitute for the product. Reason (R): A monopolist faces competition from many firms.

Correct Answer: Option C (A is true, but R is false)

Concept Explanation: Monopoly exists because close substitutes are absent. The reason is false because monopoly has a single seller.

Q12. Assertion (A): Increase in \(\mathrm{CRR}\) reduces credit creation by banks. Reason (R): Banks are required to keep a larger portion of deposits with RBI.

Correct Answer: Option A (Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A)

Concept Explanation: Higher \(\mathrm{CRR}\) reduces funds available for lending, lowering banks' credit creation capacity.

Q13. Read the following case carefully: To reduce pollution, the government imposed a higher tax on diesel vehicles and provided subsidies for electric vehicles. Which objective is mainly targeted through this policy?

Correct Answer: Option B (Environmental sustainability)

Concept Explanation: Taxes discourage polluting vehicles, while subsidies encourage cleaner alternatives for sustainable development.

Q14. Read the passage carefully: India receives large remittances from Indians working abroad. As a result, supply of foreign currency increases in India. What is the most likely impact?

Correct Answer: Option B (Appreciation of rupee)

Concept Explanation: Higher inflow of foreign currency increases supply of foreign exchange, strengthening domestic currency.

Q15. If \(\mathrm{MPC}\) = 0.8, then \(\mathrm{MPS}\) will be:

Correct Answer: Option B (0.2)

Concept Explanation: \(\mathrm{MPC}+\mathrm{MPS}=1\) \(\mathrm{MPS}\) = 1 - 0.8 = 0.2.

Q16. Which of the following will NOT be included in national income?

Correct Answer: Option C (Winning a lottery prize)

Concept Explanation: Lottery winnings are transfer incomes and are not earned through productive activities.

Q17. A firm under perfect competition earns supernormal profits in the short run. In the long run, these profits are likely to:

Correct Answer: Option C (Disappear due to entry of new firms)

Concept Explanation: Free entry of firms increases supply and competition, reducing abnormal profits in the long run.

Q18. During inflationary conditions, which fiscal measure is most appropriate?

Correct Answer: Option C (Reduction in government spending)

Concept Explanation: Reducing government expenditure lowers aggregate demand and helps control inflation.

Q19. A commodity has perfectly elastic demand. A slight increase in price will:

Correct Answer: Option B (Reduce demand to zero)

Concept Explanation: Under perfectly elastic demand, consumers stop purchasing completely if price rises even slightly.

Q20. Autonomous investment increases by \(\mathrm{Rs.\ 300\ crore}\) in an economy where \(\mathrm{MPC}\) = 0.75. What will be the total increase in national income?

Correct Answer: Option D (\(\mathrm{Rs.\ 1,200\ crore}\))

Concept Explanation: \(k=\frac{1}{1-\mathrm{MPC}}\) Multiplier = 1 / (1 - 0.75) = 4 Increase in income = 4 \(\times\) 300 = \(\mathrm{Rs.\ 1,200\ crore}\).

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