ExamSpark Class 12 Economics

Mock Test 04 Performance Solutions

Subject: CBSE Class 12 Economics (NCERT Full-Syllabus Practice)

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Detailed Question Analysis

Q1. Which of the following is a stock variable?

Correct Answer: Option C (Capital stock)

Concept Explanation: Stock variables are measured at a particular point of time. Capital stock represents the value of assets existing on a specific date.

Q2. In a centrally planned economy, the basic economic problems are mainly solved by:

Correct Answer: Option C (Government authorities)

Concept Explanation: In a centrally planned economy, the government decides what, how, and for whom to produce.

Q3. Which of the following is likely to increase the supply of a commodity?

Correct Answer: Option C (Subsidy provided by government)

Concept Explanation: Subsidies reduce production costs and encourage firms to produce more, increasing supply.

Q4. When Total Product reaches maximum, Marginal Product becomes:

Correct Answer: Option B (Zero)

Concept Explanation: Total Product is maximum when Marginal Product becomes zero. Beyond this point, TP starts falling.

Q5. Which of the following is included in the current account of Balance of Payments?

Correct Answer: Option C (Export and import of services)

Concept Explanation: The current account includes trade in goods and services, income receipts, and transfer payments.

Q6. A consumer buys more rice even when its price rises sharply because rice is a necessity and takes a major share of income. This is an example of:

Correct Answer: Option B (Giffen good)

Concept Explanation: Giffen goods are inferior goods where demand rises with increase in price due to strong income effect.

Q7. A country's central bank reduces the bank rate during recession. What is the expected impact?

Correct Answer: Option B (Increase in borrowing and investment)

Concept Explanation: Lower bank rate reduces borrowing cost for commercial banks, encouraging lending and investment.

Q8. A firm's Average Revenue is \(\mathrm{Rs.\ 50}\) and it sells 200 units. Total Revenue will be:

Correct Answer: Option A (\(\mathrm{Rs.\ 10,000}\))

Concept Explanation: Total Revenue = Average Revenue \(\times\) Quantity Sold = 50 \(\times\) 200 = \(\mathrm{Rs.\ 10,000}\).

Q9. If the price of tea increases and demand for coffee rises, tea and coffee are:

Correct Answer: Option C (Substitute goods)

Concept Explanation: Substitute goods can replace each other. Rise in tea prices increases demand for coffee.

Q10. Which of the following is an example of direct tax?

Correct Answer: Option D (Income tax)

Concept Explanation: Direct taxes are imposed directly on income or wealth and cannot be shifted to others.

Q11. Assertion (A): Depreciation is deducted while calculating Net Domestic Product from Gross Domestic Product. Reason (R): Depreciation represents loss in value of fixed assets due to wear and tear.

Correct Answer: Option A (Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A)

Concept Explanation: Depreciation accounts for reduction in value of capital assets, so it is deducted from \(\mathrm{GDP}\) to obtain NDP.

Q12. Assertion (A): Under monopoly, a firm is a price maker. Reason (R): There are many sellers producing identical products.

Correct Answer: Option C (A is true, but R is false)

Concept Explanation: A monopolist controls market supply and can influence price. The reason is false because monopoly has only one seller.

Q13. Read the following case carefully: The government increased expenditure on metro rail projects and renewable energy infrastructure. Which economic effect is most likely in the long run?

Correct Answer: Option B (Increase in employment and economic growth)

Concept Explanation: Infrastructure investment increases productive capacity, creates jobs, and promotes long-term growth.

Q14. Read the passage carefully: A commercial bank notices that customers are withdrawing more cash due to festive demand. To maintain liquidity, the bank borrows short-term funds from RBI. Which facility is most likely used by the bank?

Correct Answer: Option B (Repo rate)

Concept Explanation: Under repo facility, commercial banks borrow funds from RBI against securities for short-term liquidity needs.

Q15. If \(\mathrm{MPC}\) = 0.6, then \(\mathrm{MPS}\) will be:

Correct Answer: Option B (0.4)

Concept Explanation: \(\mathrm{MPC}+\mathrm{MPS}=1\) \(\mathrm{MPS}\) = 1 - 0.6 = 0.4.

Q16. Which of the following situations may cause cost-push inflation?

Correct Answer: Option B (Rise in wages and production costs)

Concept Explanation: Cost-push inflation occurs when production costs rise, causing firms to increase prices.

Q17. A firm in perfect competition shuts down production in the short run when:

Correct Answer: Option C (Price falls below average variable cost)

Concept Explanation: If price cannot cover average variable cost, the firm cannot recover even variable expenses and shuts down.

Q18. Suppose an economy has high unemployment and low demand. Which fiscal policy measure is most appropriate?

Correct Answer: Option C (Increase in government spending)

Concept Explanation: Higher government spending raises aggregate demand and employment during recessionary conditions.

Q19. A rise in foreign exchange reserves due to heavy foreign investment may lead to:

Correct Answer: Option A (Appreciation of domestic currency)

Concept Explanation: Large inflow of foreign currency increases supply of foreign exchange, causing domestic currency to appreciate.

Q20. In an economy, investment increases by \(\mathrm{Rs.\ 500\ crore}\) and \(\mathrm{MPC}\) is 0.5. The total increase in national income will be:

Correct Answer: Option B (\(\mathrm{Rs.\ 1,000\ crore}\))

Concept Explanation: \(k=\frac{1}{1-\mathrm{MPC}}\) Multiplier = 1 / (1 - 0.5) = 2 Increase in income = 2 \(\times\) 500 = \(\mathrm{Rs.\ 1,000\ crore}\).

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