ExamSpark Class 12 Economics

Mock Test 03 Performance Solutions

Subject: CBSE Class 12 Economics (NCERT Full-Syllabus Practice)

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Detailed Question Analysis

Q1. Which of the following is treated as an intermediate good?

Correct Answer: Option B (Milk bought by a tea shop for making tea)

Concept Explanation: Milk used by a tea shop is used for further production and is therefore an intermediate good. Final goods are directly consumed by users.

Q2. The demand curve of a perfectly competitive firm is:

Correct Answer: Option C (Perfectly elastic)

Concept Explanation: A perfectly competitive firm is a price taker and can sell any quantity at the prevailing market price, making its demand curve perfectly elastic.

Q3. Which of the following is NOT a function of commercial banks?

Correct Answer: Option C (Issuing currency notes)

Concept Explanation: Currency notes are issued by the Reserve Bank of India, not by commercial banks. Commercial banks mainly accept deposits and provide loans.

Q4. When marginal product starts declining but remains positive, total product:

Correct Answer: Option C (Continues rising at a diminishing rate)

Concept Explanation: As long as marginal product is positive, total product increases. However, when MP declines, TP rises at a decreasing rate.

Q5. Which of the following is an example of revenue expenditure of the government?

Correct Answer: Option C (Payment of salaries to government employees)

Concept Explanation: Revenue expenditure includes recurring expenses such as salaries, pensions, and subsidies that do not create assets.

Q6. A consumer's income rises from \(\mathrm{Rs.\ 40,000}\) to \(\mathrm{Rs.\ 50,000}\) per month, and his demand for branded shoes increases significantly. The shoes are most likely:

Correct Answer: Option C (Normal goods)

Concept Explanation: Demand for normal goods increases with rise in income. Branded shoes are generally treated as normal goods.

Q7. A firm sells 100 units at \(\mathrm{Rs.\ 20}\) each. When sales increase to 110 units, total revenue rises to \(\mathrm{Rs.\ 2,310}\). Marginal revenue is:

Correct Answer: Option C (\(\mathrm{Rs.\ 31}\))

Concept Explanation: Initial TR = 100 \(\times\) 20 = \(\mathrm{Rs.\ 2,000}\) New TR = \(\mathrm{Rs.\ 2,310}\) MR = Change in TR / Change in quantity = 310 / 10 = \(\mathrm{Rs.\ 31}\).

Q8. RBI purchases government securities in the open market. What will be the immediate effect?

Correct Answer: Option B (Credit availability increases)

Concept Explanation: When RBI buys securities, money flows into the banking system, increasing liquidity and lending capacity.

Q9. A rise in the price of petrol reduces the demand for cars. Petrol and cars are:

Correct Answer: Option C (Complementary goods)

Concept Explanation: Complementary goods are used together. A rise in petrol prices reduces demand for cars because using cars becomes costly.

Q10. A country's exports are rising faster than imports. This situation will most likely lead to:

Correct Answer: Option B (Trade surplus)

Concept Explanation: When exports exceed imports, the country experiences a trade surplus in the balance of trade account.

Q11. Assertion (A): Under perfect competition, firms earn only normal profits in the long run. Reason (R): Free entry and exit of firms eliminate abnormal profits.

Correct Answer: Option A (Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A)

Concept Explanation: Abnormal profits attract new firms, increasing supply and reducing profits. Losses cause firms to exit. Hence only normal profits remain.

Q12. Assertion (A): Fiscal deficit indicates total borrowing requirements of the government. Reason (R): Fiscal deficit excludes borrowings and other liabilities.

Correct Answer: Option C (A is true, but R is false)

Concept Explanation: Fiscal deficit reflects government borrowing needs. The reason is incorrect because fiscal deficit actually represents borrowings.

Q13. Read the following case carefully: The government reduced income tax rates to increase disposable income of consumers during an economic slowdown. Which macroeconomic objective is primarily targeted?

Correct Answer: Option B (Increase in aggregate demand)

Concept Explanation: Lower taxes increase disposable income and consumption expenditure, raising aggregate demand during slowdown.

Q14. Read the passage carefully: A textile company replaces workers with advanced machines. Production increases significantly, but employment falls. Which type of unemployment is most likely created?

Correct Answer: Option C (Structural unemployment)

Concept Explanation: Structural unemployment occurs when workers lose jobs due to technological changes or mismatch of skills.

Q15. If \(\mathrm{MPC}\) = 0.75, the value of multiplier is:

Correct Answer: Option C (4)

Concept Explanation: \(k=\frac{1}{1-\mathrm{MPC}}\) Substituting \(\mathrm{MPC}\) = 0.75, \(k=\frac{1}{1-0.75}\) = 4.

Q16. Which of the following transactions is included in domestic income but not in national income?

Correct Answer: Option B (Income earned by a foreign company operating in India)

Concept Explanation: Domestic income includes income generated within domestic territory, even if earned by foreign residents.

Q17. A producer increases all inputs in the same proportion and output rises more than proportionately. This reflects:

Correct Answer: Option C (Increasing returns to scale)

Concept Explanation: When output increases more than the increase in inputs, the production process shows increasing returns to scale.

Q18. Suppose the price elasticity of demand for a good is greater than 1. A fall in price will likely:

Correct Answer: Option B (Increase total revenue)

Concept Explanation: For elastic demand (Ed > 1), percentage increase in quantity demanded exceeds percentage fall in price, raising total revenue.

Q19. The government imposes higher taxes during high inflation. This policy aims to:

Correct Answer: Option B (Reduce purchasing power)

Concept Explanation: Higher taxes reduce disposable income and consumption expenditure, helping control inflationary pressure.

Q20. In an economy, autonomous investment increases by \(\mathrm{Rs.\ 200\ crore}\) and \(\mathrm{MPC}\) is 0.8. The increase in equilibrium income will be:

Correct Answer: Option D (\(\mathrm{Rs.\ 1,000\ crore}\))

Concept Explanation: \(\Delta Y=k\times\Delta I\) Multiplier, \(k=\frac{1}{1-\mathrm{MPC}}\) \(k=\frac{1}{1-0.8}\) = 5 Increase in income = 5 \(\times\) 200 = \(\mathrm{Rs.\ 1,000\ crore}\).

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