Question 1
According to NCERT, which of the following statements about superconductors is correct?
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Correct Answer: They are perfect diamagnets with a magnetic susceptibility of $-1$.
Explanation: Superconductors exhibit perfect diamagnetism, a phenomenon known as the Meissner effect. For a superconductor, the relative permeability is zero ($\mu_r=0$), which means its magnetic susceptibility ($\chi = \mu_r - 1$) is exactly $-1$.
Question 2
As per NCERT lines on Semiconductor Electronics, what is the primary reason a Zener diode is heavily doped?
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Correct Answer: To make the depletion region very thin and the electric field very high.
Explanation: Heavy doping in a Zener diode makes the depletion region extremely thin (less than a micrometer). This thin region causes the electric field across the junction to be incredibly high ($E=V/d$), which facilitates the internal field emission of electrons, leading to Zener breakdown.
Question 3
According to NCERT, the displacement current arises due to:
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Correct Answer: A changing electric field or electric flux with respect to time.
Explanation: Maxwell introduced the concept of displacement current to satisfy the continuity of current in circuits with capacitors. It is given by $I_d = \varepsilon_0 \frac{d\Phi_E}{dt}$, meaning it is produced solely by a time-varying electric flux.
Question 4
NCERT highlights that in the Bohr model of the hydrogen atom, the total energy of the electron in a stationary state is negative. This negative sign signifies that:
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Correct Answer: The electron is bound to the nucleus and requires external energy to escape.
Explanation: A negative total energy implies that the electron-nucleus system is a bound system. If the total energy were zero or positive, the electron would not be bound to the nucleus and would be free.
Question 5
A convex lens made of glass (refractive index $1.5$) has a focal length of $20\text{ cm}$ in air. If it is completely immersed in a liquid of refractive index $1.6$, what will happen to its nature and focal length?
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Correct Answer: It behaves as a concave lens and its focal length becomes negative.
Explanation: Using the Lens Maker's formula, the focal length depends on the relative refractive index $(\mu_{\text{lens}} / \mu_{\text{medium}}) - 1$. Since $1.5 < 1.6$, the term becomes negative. Thus, the focal length becomes negative, and the converging (convex) lens starts behaving as a diverging (concave) lens.
Question 6
In a given thermodynamic process, the temperature of an ideal gas is kept constant while it expands from volume $V$ to $2V$. Which of the following is true regarding the internal energy and work done?
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Correct Answer: Internal energy remains constant, work done by gas is positive.
Explanation: For an ideal gas, internal energy depends only on temperature ($U \propto T$). Since it is an isothermal process, $\Delta T=0$, so $\Delta U=0$. Since the gas expands, the volume increases, meaning the gas does positive work on the surroundings.
Question 7
Two identical conducting solid spheres A and B carry charges $+Q$ and $-3Q$ respectively. They are brought into contact and then separated by a distance $r$. What is the nature and magnitude of the new electrostatic force between them compared to the initial force?
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Correct Answer: Repulsive, force decreases
Explanation: Initial force $F \propto (Q)(3Q) = 3Q^2$ (attractive). When touched, total charge is $+Q - 3Q = -2Q$. Since they are identical, charge is shared equally: each gets $-Q$. Final force $F' \propto (-Q)(-Q) = Q^2$ (repulsive). The force changed from attractive to repulsive, and the magnitude decreased from $3Q^2$ proportionality to $Q^2$.
Question 8
In a series combination of two light bulbs, Bulb 1 is rated $60\text{W}/220\text{V}$ and Bulb 2 is rated $100\text{W}/220\text{V}$. If they are connected in series across a $220\text{V}$ supply, which bulb will glow brighter?
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Correct Answer: Bulb 1 (60W)
Explanation: Resistance of a bulb is given by $R = V^2/P$. Thus, the 60W bulb has a higher resistance than the 100W bulb. In a series circuit, the current $I$ is the same for both. The power consumed (brightness) is $P = I^2R$. Since $R$ is higher for the 60W bulb, it dissipates more power and glows brighter in series.
Question 9
Assertion: The value of acceleration due to gravity ($g$) is minimum at the equator and maximum at the poles.
Reason: The earth is not a perfect sphere; its equatorial radius is greater than its polar radius, and the earth rotates about its axis.
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Correct Answer: Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation.
Explanation: The value of $g$ is affected by both the shape of the earth ($g \propto 1/R^2$, and $R_{\text{equator}} > R_{\text{poles}}$) and the rotation of the earth ($g' = g - R\omega^2\cos^2\lambda$). Both factors contribute to making $g$ minimum at the equator ($\lambda = 0^\circ$) and maximum at the poles ($\lambda = 90^\circ$).
Question 10
Assertion: In Young's Double Slit Experiment (YDSE), if the monochromatic light source is replaced by white light, the central fringe is white while all other fringes are colored.
Reason: The path difference for all colors at the central maximum is zero.
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Correct Answer: Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation.
Explanation: At the central position, the path difference is exactly zero for all wavelengths (colors). Since constructive interference condition ($\Delta x = n\lambda$) is satisfied for $n=0$ for all colors simultaneously, they all recombine to form a white central fringe. As you move away, path differences change, and different colors form maxima at different positions.
Question 11
Consider the following two statements regarding Rutherford's alpha-particle scattering experiment:
Statement I: The majority of alpha particles passed through the gold foil undeflected because the atom has a massive positive charge spread uniformly.
Statement II: The trajectory of the alpha particles depends entirely on the impact parameter.
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Correct Answer: Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
Explanation: Statement I is incorrect; most particles passed undeflected because most of the atom is empty space, not because charge is uniform (that was Thomson's failed model). Statement II is correct; the impact parameter determines the scattering angleβa small impact parameter leads to a large angle of deviation.
Question 12
Consider the following two statements:
Statement I: The drift velocity of free electrons in a metallic conductor increases with an increase in temperature.
Statement II: The relaxation time of electrons in a conductor decreases with an increase in temperature.
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Correct Answer: Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
Explanation: As temperature increases, metal ions vibrate with larger amplitudes. This causes electrons to collide more frequently, which decreases the average time between collisions (relaxation time, $\tau$). Since drift velocity $v_d \propto \tau$, the drift velocity actually decreases as temperature increases, making Statement I false.
Question 13
A car moving with a speed $v$ on a straight road can be stopped by applying brakes in a minimum distance $s$. If the car is moving with a speed of $3v$, what will be the minimum stopping distance under the same retarding force?
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Correct Answer: $9s$
Explanation: By the Work-Energy theorem (or 3rd equation of motion $v^2 = u^2 + 2as$), the initial kinetic energy is dissipated by the work done by friction: $\frac{1}{2}mv^2 = F \times s$. This means $s \propto v^2$. If speed becomes $3v$, the stopping distance becomes $(3)^2=9$ times the original distance, i.e., $9s$.
Question 14
A uniform solid disk of mass $M$ and radius $R$ rotates freely about a vertical axis through its center with an angular velocity $\omega$. A small piece of wax of mass $m$ falls vertically and sticks to the disk at a distance $R/2$ from the axis. What is the new angular velocity of the system?
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Correct Answer: $\frac{2M\omega}{2M+m}$
Explanation: Angular momentum is conserved: $L_i = L_f \implies I_1 \omega = I_2 \omega'$. Initial moment of inertia $I_1 = \frac{1}{2}MR^2$. Final moment of inertia $I_2 = \frac{1}{2}MR^2 + m(R/2)^2 = \frac{1}{2}MR^2 + \frac{mR^2}{4}$. Equating: $(\frac{1}{2}MR^2)\omega = (\frac{1}{2}MR^2 + \frac{1}{4}mR^2)\omega'$. Cancel $R^2$ and multiply by 4 to clear denominators: $2M\omega = (2M+m)\omega'$. Thus, $\omega' = \frac{2M\omega}{2M + m}$.
Question 15
Two capacitors of $2\,\mu\text{F}$ and $4\,\mu\text{F}$ are charged to potentials of $10\text{ V}$ and $20\text{ V}$ respectively. If their positive plates are connected together and negative plates are connected together, what is the common potential of the combination?
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Correct Answer: $16.67\text{ V}$
Explanation: When capacitors are connected in parallel (positive to positive), the total charge is conserved. $Q_1 = C_1V_1 = 2 \times 10 = 20\,\mu\text{C}$. $Q_2 = C_2V_2 = 4 \times 20 = 80\,\mu\text{C}$. Total charge $Q = 20 + 80 = 100\,\mu\text{C}$. Total capacitance $C = C_1 + C_2 = 2 + 4 = 6\,\mu\text{F}$. Common potential $V = Q/C = 100/6 = 16.67\text{ V}$.
Question 16
If force ($F$), velocity ($v$), and time ($T$) are taken as fundamental physical quantities, what is the dimensional formula for mass?
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Correct Answer: $[F v^{-1} T]$
Explanation: From Newton's second law, Force = mass $\times$ acceleration. $F = m \times \frac{v}{T}$. Rearranging for mass: $m = \frac{F \times T}{v} = F v^{-1} T$. So the dimensional formula is $[F v^{-1} T]$.
Question 17
The binding energy per nucleon of two nuclei A and B are $6\text{ MeV}$ and $8\text{ MeV}$ respectively. If a nucleus C is formed by the fusion of A and B, and its binding energy per nucleon is $7.5\text{ MeV}$, what will be the nature of this reaction? (Assume mass numbers $A=20$ and $B=30$).
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Correct Answer: Energy is released in the process.
Explanation: Total initial binding energy = $(20 \times 6) + (30 \times 8) = 120 + 240 = 360\text{ MeV}$. Total mass number of $C = 20+30=50$. Total final binding energy = $50 \times 7.5 = 375\text{ MeV}$. Since final binding energy is greater than initial binding energy, the product nucleus is more tightly bound. The difference $(375 - 360 = 15\text{ MeV})$ is released as Q-value energy.
Question 18
A water drop of radius $R$ falls in air with a terminal velocity $v$. If it is divided into 8 identical smaller drops, what will be the terminal velocity of each smaller drop?
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Correct Answer: $v/4$
Explanation: Volume conservation: $\frac{4}{3}\pi R^3 = 8 \times \frac{4}{3}\pi r^3 \implies R = 2r \implies r = R/2$. Terminal velocity $v_t$ is proportional to the square of the radius ($v_t \propto r^2$). New terminal velocity $v' \propto (R/2)^2 \implies v' \propto \frac{R^2}{4}$. Therefore, the new terminal velocity is $v/4$.
Question 19
A simple pendulum is attached to the roof of a lift. If the time period of oscillation when the lift is stationary is $T$, what will be its time period when the lift falls freely under gravity?
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Correct Answer: Infinity
Explanation: Time period $T = 2\pi \sqrt{L/g_{\text{eff}}}$. When the lift is in free fall, the downward acceleration $a=g$. The pseudo force acts upwards, perfectly canceling true gravity. Effective gravity $g_{\text{eff}} = g - g = 0$. Substituting $g_{\text{eff}}=0$ into the formula gives $T = \text{Infinity}$. The pendulum simply won't oscillate.
Question 20
TRAP QUESTION: A block of mass $10\text{ kg}$ rests on the rough floor of a truck. The coefficient of static friction is $0.4$. The truck accelerates horizontally at $2\text{ m/s}^2$. The block does not slip. What is the work done by the force of friction on the block by the time the truck has moved a distance of $5\text{ m}$?
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Correct Answer: $+100\text{ J}$
Explanation: Since the block does not slip, it moves with the truck at $2\text{ m/s}^2$. The only force accelerating the block horizontally is the static friction from the truck floor. Force of friction acting on the block $F_f = ma = 10 \times 2 = 20\text{ N}$ (Note: We DO NOT use $\mu mg$ because friction is self-adjusting and limits at 40N, but only 20N is required here). The friction acts in the forward direction (direction of motion). Work done by friction = $F_f \times s = 20 \times 5 = +100\text{ J}$.
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