ExamSpark CUET UG
Mock Test 03 Performance Solutions
Subject: Political Science
Q1. A powerful nation uses its control over international financial institutions like the IMF and World Bank to shape the economic policies of smaller, developing nations to its own advantage. This is a manifestation of which form of hegemony?
Correct Answer: Option A (Hard Power Hegemony)
Explanation: While there were initial fears, accepting the linguistic principle for state reorganization removed a major point of conflict and made politics more democratic, thus strengthening national unity in the long run.
Q2. Consider the following statements regarding the States Reorganisation Commission (SRC) of 1953:
Assertion (A): The reorganisation of states on a linguistic basis ultimately strengthened the unity of India.
Reason (R): It removed a major source of popular grievance and conflict, allowing diverse linguistic groups to have political and administrative autonomy.
Correct Answer: Option B (Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.)
Explanation: Warsaw Pact (1955), Cuban Missile Crisis (1962), Soviet invasion of Afghanistan (1979), Unification of Germany (1990).
Q3. Arrange the following events of the Cold War era in the correct chronological order:
I. Soviet invasion of Afghanistan
II. Establishment of the Warsaw Pact
III. Cuban Missile Crisis
IV. Unification of Germany
Correct Answer: Option D (II, I, III, IV)
Explanation: This is a critique more commonly associated with the political Right (protectionism, nationalism). The Left's critique focuses more on exploitation of labor, environmental degradation, and the erosion of the welfare state.
Q4. The 'anti-globalisation' movement critiques various aspects of globalisation. Which of the following is LEAST likely to be an argument put forth by a critic from the political Left?
Correct Answer: Option C (It promotes cultural homogenisation, threatening local cultures.)
Explanation: While Mandal and Mandir were major events, the fundamental structural change was the end of Congress's role as the central, catch-all party, which created a vacuum filled by numerous smaller parties, making coalitions necessary.
Q5. The period of Indian politics after 1989 is often characterized by the "era of coalitions." What was the most significant underlying political shift that led to this phenomenon?
Correct Answer: Option C (The decline of the 'Congress System' and the rise of multiple regional and caste-based parties.)
Explanation: Any change to the UN Charter requires the agreement of all P-5 members. Since any reform would dilute their own power, one or more are likely to use their veto, making reform nearly impossible.
Q6. The demand for reforms in the UN Security Council has been a long-standing issue. What is the most significant structural impediment to expanding the number of permanent members?
Correct Answer: Option C (The charter provision that requires the consensus of all five permanent members (P-5) for any amendment.)
Explanation: While other demands existed within the broader Tamil movement, the specific and ultimate goal of the militant group LTTE was complete secession and the formation of a separate nation-state.
Q7. In the context of the ethnic conflict in Sri Lanka, the primary political demand of the Liberation Tigers of Tamil Eelam (LTTE) was:
Correct Answer: Option B (The establishment of an autonomous federal unit for the Tamil population within Sri Lanka.)
Explanation: This was a direct and controversial change made by the 42nd Amendment to prolong the life of the then-ruling government. This was later reversed by the 44th Amendment.
Q8. The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, passed during the Emergency, is often called a 'mini-constitution'. Which of the following changes, directly affecting the democratic structure, was a part of this amendment?
Correct Answer: Option A (The right to property was removed from the list of Fundamental Rights.)
Explanation: This correctly matches each movement with its core agenda: Dalit Panthers (caste), BKU (farmers' economic issues), NBA (developmental displacement), and Chipko (environment).
Q9. Match the following popular movements with their primary area of focus:
(List I - Movement)
a) Dalit Panthers
b) Bharatiya Kisan Union (BKU)
c) Narmada Bachao Andolan
d) Chipko Movement
(List II - Primary Focus)
i) Opposition to large-scale development projects causing displacement.
ii) Asserting rights and fighting against caste-based atrocities.
iii) Demanding fair prices for agricultural produce and loan waivers.
iv) Ecological conservation and rights of local communities over forests.
Correct Answer: Option D (a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii)
Explanation: The First Plan, influenced by K.N. Raj, was cautious and focused on the agrarian sector. The Second Plan, architected by P.C. Mahalanobis, made a decisive shift towards building a heavy industrial base.
Q10. The shift from the First Five-Year Plan to the Second Five-Year Plan in India represented a significant change in developmental strategy. This shift can be best described as:
Correct Answer: Option B (A change in focus from heavy industrialization to agricultural development.)
Explanation: NAM's core purpose was to maintain autonomy from the two superpower blocs. With one bloc gone, its raison d'être was questioned, forcing it to focus on new issues like development and South-South cooperation.
Q11. The end of the Cold War and the disintegration of the USSR had a profound impact on the Non-Aligned Movement (NAM). What was the most direct consequence for NAM?
Correct Answer: Option C (It immediately dissolved as its primary function was to mediate between the two superpowers.)
Explanation: Asymmetric federalism is the principle where different constituent states in a federation possess different powers. Article 370 was the prime example of this in India, granting J&K a special status not available to other states.
Q12. The abrogation of Article 370 of the Indian Constitution, which granted special status to Jammu and Kashmir, is seen by critics as a challenge to which specific feature of Indian federalism?
Correct Answer: Option C (Asymmetric Federalism)
Explanation: A pandemic is a non-traditional threat that cannot be stopped by military force. It threatens individuals (human security) directly, irrespective of their nationality, proving that state security alone is insufficient.
Q13. A global pandemic like COVID-19 severely tests the traditional concept of security. In what primary way does it challenge this notion?
Correct Answer: Option C (It shifts the referent of security from solely the state to include human security and global well-being.)
Explanation: 'Strategic Autonomy' is the current official and academic term for India's policy. It signifies retaining the freedom to make foreign policy choices based on national interest, without being tied to any single camp, while actively engaging with all.
Q14. Since the 1990s, India's foreign policy has shown a marked shift from its classical Non-Alignment stance. Which concept best describes India's contemporary approach of engaging with multiple, often competing, major powers (like the USA, Russia, and the EU) to maximize its own interests?
Correct Answer: Option A (Multi-polar Alignment)
Explanation: The EU is 'supranational' precisely because its member states have voluntarily pooled sovereignty in key areas (like trade, currency), allowing a common institution to make decisions that override national laws.
Q15. Consider the following statements about the European Union (EU):
Assertion (A): The EU is often described as a 'supranational' organization.
Reason (R): Member states of the EU have transferred a significant portion of their national sovereignty to common institutions, whose decisions are binding on them.
Correct Answer: Option B (Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.)
Explanation: Lohia's 'non-Congressism' was a pragmatic political strategy, not an ideological one. It brought together diverse parties (from socialists to conservatives) under the single goal of ousting the long-ruling Congress party.
Q16. The political strategy of 'non-Congressism', articulated by Ram Manohar Lohia, was pivotal in the 1967 elections. What was the core idea behind this strategy?
Correct Answer: Option C (To promote a socialist alternative to the centrist policies of the Congress party.)
Explanation: This concept describes a situation where a shared, unregulated resource (the 'commons') is depleted because individuals act in their own self-interest, leading to a negative outcome for all. International fisheries are a textbook example.
Q17. The depletion of fish stocks in international waters due to overfishing by multiple countries, each acting in its own self-interest, is a classic real-world example of which environmental concept?
Correct Answer: Option C (The Tragedy of the Commons)
Explanation: The Mandal debate and implementation created a powerful political identity around the OBC label. This led to the rise of parties like the SP, RJD, and JD(U) that mobilized this vote bank, fundamentally altering electoral arithmetic.
Q18. The implementation of the Mandal Commission recommendations in 1990 did not just create social churn; it fundamentally reshaped Indian politics. What was its most enduring political consequence?
Correct Answer: Option C (It solidified the Other Backward Classes (OBCs) as a major, self-aware political constituency, leading to the rise of powerful regional parties.)
Explanation: The experience of the Emergency, where civil liberties were suspended, led to a realization that democratic rights cannot be taken for granted. This spurred the formation and activism of numerous non-governmental organizations dedicated to "eternal vigilance" over state power.
Q19. A famous political thinker stated, "The price of liberty is eternal vigilance." Which development in post-Emergency India best embodies the practical application of this sentiment?
Correct Answer: Option B (The increased use of ordinances to pass laws.)
Explanation: The key difference lies in the ideological core. The Congress party, in its heyday, accommodated diverse ideologies. The BJP's dominance, in contrast, is built around a clear ideological anchor (Hindutva) combined with welfarism and a strong leadership cult.
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### Highlights for CUET 2027 Aspirants
* Important Concepts Used: Hegemony (Structural), Asymmetric Federalism, Supranationalism, Strategic Autonomy, Non-Congressism, Tragedy of the Commons, Human Security.
* Expected Question Types:
* Assertion-Reason (Q2, Q15): This format is a CUET favourite. It tests the 'why' behind the 'what'.
* Chronological Order (Q3): Expect these for major historical timelines.
* Application/Scenario-Based (Q1, Q13, Q17): These test if you can apply a theoretical concept to a real-world situation.
* Conceptual Differentiation (Q10, Q14, Q20): These require you to understand the subtle differences between related ideas.
* Matching (Q9): An efficient way to test knowledge across a broad topic like popular movements.
This set is designed to push you beyond rote learning. Focus on understanding the underlying logic of political processes and concepts. Good luck
Q20. Political analysts suggest that the period since 2014 represents a new phase in India's party system, sometimes termed the 'BJP System'. How does this system primarily differ from the earlier 'Congress System'?
Correct Answer: Option A (The 'BJP System' is based on a multi-party coalition, whereas the 'Congress System' was a single-party government.)
Explanation: Detailed explanation will be updated shortly.