What amount will be credited to the Income and Expenditure Account for the year 2023-24 for subscriptions?

₹4,85,000. Subscription for the year = Total Received - Received for Previous Year - Received for Next Year + Outstanding for Current Year = ₹5,00,000 - ₹25,000 - ₹40,000 + ₹50,000 (i.e., ₹55,000 - ₹5,000 irrecoverable).

What is the corrective action if the partnership deed is silent on interest on drawings but the accountant charged 6%?

Credit P's, Q's, and R's Capital Accounts with the interest wrongly debited. When the deed is silent, no interest is charged.

What happens in a Common-Size Income Statement if the percentage of 'Cost of Revenue from Operations' to 'Revenue' increases?

It indicates a deterioration in gross profit margin, as a larger portion of revenue is being consumed by costs.

CUET Political Science Mock Test 19 Solutions & Explanations

Q1. Consider the following statement regarding the logic of the States Reorganisation Commission (SRC), 1953: "While language was the primary basis for reorganisation, it was not the sole criterion." Which of the following instances best exemplifies the SRC prioritising a different concern over the linguistic principle?

Correct Answer: Option C (, 1953: "While language was the primary basis for reorganisation, it was not the sole criterion." Which of the following instances best exemplifies the SRC prioritising a different concern over the linguistic principle?)

Explanation: The idea of a 'committed' judiciary and bureaucracy implies that these institutions should be committed to the ruling party's ideology, rather than to the Constitution. This directly attacks the principle of their independence and their role as checks on executive power.

Q2. The concept of 'Committed Bureaucracy and Judiciary' was intensely debated in India during the 1970s. A critic of this concept would argue that it fundamentally undermines the principle of:

Correct Answer: Option B (Parliamentary sovereignty.)

Explanation: Soft power is the ability to influence others through attraction and persuasion rather than coercion (hard power). The global adoption of American cultural products and technological platforms is a prime example of its hegemonic soft power.

Q3. In the context of post-Cold War international relations, which of the following scenarios best illustrates the concept of 'hegemony as soft power'?

Correct Answer: Option B (The global dominance of American tech companies like Google and Meta, shaping cultural and communication norms.)

Explanation: Ganga-Jamuni Tehzeeb is a socio-cultural term, not a political or legal one. It refers to the unique fusion of Hindu (Ganga) and Islamic (Jamuna) cultural streams, especially in North India.

Q4. The 'Ganga-Jamuni Tehzeeb', often cited in discussions on Indian secularism, refers to a cultural ethos that is best described as:

Correct Answer: Option C (A legal framework guaranteeing equal rights to all religious minorities.)

Explanation: The Mandal implementation made caste (specifically OBC identity) the central axis of Indian politics. It led to the rise of regional parties based on OBC support and forced national parties to adopt 'social justice' rhetoric.

Q5. Imagine a political analyst in 1990 evaluating the implications of the Mandal Commission report's implementation. Which of the following would be the most astute prediction of its immediate political consequence?

Correct Answer: Option B (The consolidation of upper-caste votes under a single political party.)

Explanation: The core difference is in the level of integration. The EU has institutions like the European Parliament and European Commission with binding authority over member states (supranationalism). ASEAN strictly adheres to non-interference and national sovereignty.

Q6. The ASEAN Way, a principle guiding the Association of Southeast Asian Nations, emphasizes 'non-interference' and 'consensus-based decision making'. How does this primarily differ from the European Union's (EU) approach to integration?

Correct Answer: Option B (The EU involves a significant surrender of national sovereignty to supranational institutions, which the ASEAN Way avoids.)

Explanation: India refused to sign the NPT (opened for signature in 1968). The first test was in 1974 (i). The second tests were in 1998 (iv). The official NFU doctrine was articulated after the 1998 tests, around 1999 and formally adopted in 2003 (iii).

Q7. Arrange the following events related to India's nuclear policy in the correct chronological order:
i. The first Pokhran nuclear test, codenamed 'Smiling Buddha'.
ii. India's refusal to sign the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT).
iii. The establishment of India's 'No First Use' (NFU) policy doctrine.
iv. The second series of nuclear tests at Pokhran (Operation Shakti).

Correct Answer: Option B (ii, i, iv, iii)

Explanation: 'Shock Therapy' was characterized by its speed and intensity. It involved sudden market liberalisation, mass privatisation, and a shift to free-market capitalism, which was a painful 'shock' to the post-Soviet economies.

Q8. The term 'Shock Therapy' as applied to post-communist states in the 1990s involved a transition from one economic model to another. Which statement accurately captures the core essence of this transition?

Correct Answer: Option B (A rapid and radical shift from an authoritarian communist system to a democratic capitalist system.)

Explanation: Both movements argued that the prevailing model of development ignored environmental costs and the rights of local communities. They advocated for a more sustainable and people-centric approach to progress.

Q9. The Chipko Movement in the Himalayas and the Narmada Bachao Andolan in Central India, while focused on different resources (forests and rivers), shared a common underlying critique. What was this critique?

Correct Answer: Option B (They fundamentally challenged the dominant, top-down, and 'development-at-all-costs' model of national progress.)

Explanation: The G4 nations are the four countries that have formed a bloc to lobby for permanent seats on the UN Security Council. They represent major economic and regional powers from different continents.

Q10. A key argument for reforming the UN Security Council is to make it more representative of contemporary geopolitical realities. Which of the following groups of countries, known as the G4, mutually support each other's bids for permanent seats?

Correct Answer: Option B (Brazil, Germany, India, Japan)

Explanation: The Syndicate, including leaders like K. Kamaraj and S. K. Patil, were powerful state-level leaders who wielded immense control over the party machinery and played a key role in the succession after Nehru.

Q11. The political concept of 'Syndicate' within the Congress party during the 1960s referred to:

Correct Answer: Option C (An official committee tasked with implementing the party's economic policies.)

Explanation: A key clause in the Shimla Agreement was the commitment by both India and Pakistan to settle their differences by peaceful means through bilateral negotiations, a cornerstone of Indian diplomacy on the issue since.

Q12. Consider the peace processes in South Asia. The 1972 Shimla Agreement between India and Pakistan is considered a landmark because it emphasized:

Correct Answer: Option B (A military solution to the Kashmir issue.)

Explanation: Traditional security focuses on military threats to the state. Human security focuses on threats to individuals and communities, such as disease ('health security'), hunger ('food security'), and poverty ('economic security'). A pandemic is a classic human security threat.

Q13. The concept of 'Human Security' broadens the traditional definition of security. Which of the following threats falls most squarely under the 'Human Security' paradigm but not necessarily under 'Traditional Security'?

Correct Answer: Option D (The formation of a rival military alliance.)

Explanation: While extremists later used it to justify separatism, the Anandpur Sahib Resolution itself was primarily a document demanding the decentralisation of power and greater state autonomy within the Indian Union, reflecting federal aspirations.

Q14. The Anandpur Sahib Resolution of 1973 is a significant document in the study of regional aspirations in Punjab. While it had various interpretations, its core political demand could be interpreted as:

Correct Answer: Option C (A demand for the complete abolition of the Punjabi language.)

Explanation: Kothari's brilliant insight was that the real competition in Indian politics happened *within* the umbrella of the Congress party, which represented diverse interests. This internal factionalism acted as a substitute for a formal opposition.

Q15. Rajni Kothari's characterisation of the Indian party system as the 'Congress System' in the initial decades after independence was based on the observation that:

Correct Answer: Option C (The Congress operated as a party of consensus, incorporating various factions and ideologies, making it both the ruling party and the opposition.)

Explanation: This shows how non-state international actors (like rating agencies) can influence and constrain the policy choices of a sovereign state, thereby reducing its capacity to act independently. This is a key political effect of economic globalisation.

Q16. Which of the following is an example of globalisation's political impact leading to a perceived 'erosion of state capacity'?

Correct Answer: Option C (An international credit rating agency downgrading a country's sovereign rating, forcing it to change its economic policies.)

Explanation: The government's stated rationale for invoking Article 352 was the threat of 'internal disturbance'. This justification was highly controversial and was later amended by the 44th Amendment to the more specific term 'armed rebellion'.

Q17. The 25th of June 1975, the date of the proclamation of the National Emergency, is a critical date. The constitutional provision invoked by the government was Article 352, citing a threat of:

Correct Answer: Option B (Financial instability.)

Explanation: The First Plan (Harrod-Domar model) was cautious and focused on the agrarian sector. The Second Plan, based on the Mahalanobis model, made a decisive shift towards building a heavy industrial base under the control of the public sector.

Q18. The transition from the First Five-Year Plan to the Second Five-Year Plan marked a significant strategic shift in India's development policy. This shift was from:

Correct Answer: Option C (A free-market model to a state-controlled model.)

Explanation: A multi-polar world is defined by the existence of more than two major centres of power. The current global landscape, with the rise of China, a resurgent Russia, and a more assertive India and EU alongside the US, fits this description.

Q19. The concept of a 'multi-polar world order' is best exemplified by:

Correct Answer: Option A (The undisputed dominance of the United States after the collapse of the USSR.)

Explanation: The Janata government, which came to power on the promise of restoring democracy, established the Shah Commission to create an official record of the excesses and misuse of power that occurred during the 21-month period of the Emergency.

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### Highlights for the Student

* Important Concepts Used: State Reorganisation, Separation of Powers, Hegemony (Hard vs. Soft Power), Syncretic Culture, Political Realignment, Supranationalism vs. Intergovernmentalism, Nuclear Policy Chronology, Shock Therapy, Development Models, UN Reform, Party Systems (Congress System), Bilateralism, Human Security, Federalism, Globalisation's Impact, National Emergency, Five-Year Plans, World Order.
* PYQ-based/Expected Type: Many of these questions are "Expected Types." For example, questions on the 'Congress System' (Q15), the shift in Five-Year Plans (Q18), the logic of the Emergency (Q17), and the principles of ASEAN vs. EU (Q6) are perennial topics that CUET setters love to frame in new, analytical ways. Questions like the chronological ordering (Q7) and the scenario-based analysis (Q5) are also very common formats.

Q20. The Shah Commission was appointed in 1977 by the Janata Party government. Its primary mandate was to:

Correct Answer: Option A (Investigate the circumstances, facts, and abuse of authority during the Emergency.)

Explanation: Detailed explanation will be updated shortly.

Mock Test 19 Performance Solutions