ExamSpark CUET UG
Mock Test 14 Performance Solutions
Subject: Political Science
Q1. Consider the following assertion and reason regarding the nature of the Cold War:
Assertion (A): The Cold War, despite its intense ideological rivalry and proxy wars, never escalated into a full-scale direct war between the two superpowers.
Reason (R): The logic of 'deterrence', underpinned by the doctrine of Mutually Assured Destruction (MAD), made the cost of a direct conflict unacceptably high for both the USA and the USSR.
Correct Answer: Option A (: The Cold War, despite its intense ideological rivalry and proxy wars, never escalated into a full-scale direct war between the two superpowers.
Reason (R): The logic of 'deterrence', underpinned by the doctrine of Mutually Assured Destruction (MAD), made the cost of a direct conflict unacceptably high for both the USA and the USSR.)
Explanation: Detailed explanation will be updated shortly.
Q2. Which of the following sequences correctly arranges the events leading to and following the end of bipolarity?
I. Unification of Germany
II. Disintegration of the Soviet Union
III. Fall of the Berlin Wall
IV. First Gulf War
Correct Answer: Option A (III, I, IV, II)
Explanation: Detailed explanation will be updated shortly.
Q3. A multinational corporation (MNC) headquartered in the US structures its global supply chain in a way that all financial transactions are denominated in US dollars and routed through New York-based banks. This gives the US significant leverage over global trade. This scenario is a prime example of:
Correct Answer: Option A (US military hegemony)
Explanation: Detailed explanation will be updated shortly.
Q4. The Maastricht Treaty is a landmark in the history of the European Union. Which of the following outcomes was a direct and foundational consequence of this treaty, distinguishing it from prior agreements like the Treaty of Rome?
Correct Answer: Option A (It established a common agricultural policy.)
Explanation: Detailed explanation will be updated shortly.
Q5. The relative ineffectiveness of the South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) is often attributed to several factors. Which of the following represents the most significant political impediment?
Correct Answer: Option A (The linguistic diversity within the member states.)
Explanation: Detailed explanation will be updated shortly.
Q6. Imagine a crisis in a fictional country where a civil war is causing a massive humanitarian catastrophe. A resolution is proposed in the UN Security Council to authorize a "no-fly zone" and humanitarian intervention. If one of the P-5 members disagrees with the military aspect but supports the humanitarian aid, how can it use its veto power?
Correct Answer: Option A (It must veto the entire resolution, blocking both military action and aid.)
Explanation: Detailed explanation will be updated shortly.
Q7. The 1994 UN Human Development Report expanded the concept of security by introducing the idea of 'human security'. Which of the following threats would be the primary focus under this new paradigm, as opposed to the traditional notion of security?
Correct Answer: Option A (Cross-border military invasion.)
Explanation: Detailed explanation will be updated shortly.
Q8. The principle of 'Common but Differentiated Responsibilities' (CBDR) was formally adopted at the Rio Earth Summit in 1992. What is the core argument put forward by developing countries to justify this principle?
Correct Answer: Option A (Developing countries have more pressing issues like poverty and cannot afford environmental protection.)
Explanation: Detailed explanation will be updated shortly.
Q9. The argument that globalisation leads to 'cultural heterogenisation' suggests that:
Correct Answer: Option A (A dominant global culture is erasing local cultures and traditions.)
Explanation: Detailed explanation will be updated shortly.
Q10. In the context of the integration of Princely States, the 'Instrument of Accession' was a legal document. What was the most debated and complex aspect of its application in the case of Jammu and Kashmir compared to most other states?
Correct Answer: Option A (The ruler was of a different religion than the majority population.)
Explanation: Detailed explanation will be updated shortly.
Q11. Political scientists describe the period of Congress dominance in India (approx. 1952-1967) as the 'Congress System' rather than a 'one-party system'. What is the key analytical distinction?
Correct Answer: Option A (The Congress party won all elections with more than 75% of the vote.)
Explanation: Detailed explanation will be updated shortly.
Q12. While the Planning Commission adopted a socialist-inspired model of a state-controlled economy, a group of leading Indian industrialists proposed an alternative blueprint in 1944. What was this proposal, known as the 'Bombay Plan', advocating for?
Correct Answer: Option A (A complete laissez-faire economy with no state intervention.)
Explanation: Detailed explanation will be updated shortly.
Q13. India's nuclear doctrine is centered on a 'No First Use' (NFU) policy. However, this policy is attached to a crucial condition. What is that condition?
Correct Answer: Option A (NFU policy is valid only against non-nuclear-weapon states.)
Explanation: Detailed explanation will be updated shortly.
Q14. The term 'Syndicate' became prominent in Indian politics in the 1960s. Who were they, and what was their primary objective in the power struggle within the Congress party?
Correct Answer: Option A (A group of young, radical leaders who wanted to push the party towards socialism.)
Explanation: Detailed explanation will be updated shortly.
Q15. The imposition of the National Emergency in 1975 was constitutionally justified by the government under Article 352 on the grounds of 'internal disturbance'. The Shah Commission, which later investigated the excesses of the Emergency, concluded that:
Correct Answer: Option A (The Emergency was a necessary step to curb growing political instability and violence.)
Explanation: Detailed explanation will be updated shortly.
Q16. The Chipko Movement is often cited as a landmark environmental movement. Beyond its immediate goal of saving trees, what was its deeper, long-term contribution to political discourse in India?
Correct Answer: Option A (It led to the formation of the first 'Green Party' in India.)
Explanation: Detailed explanation will be updated shortly.
Q17. The Anandpur Sahib Resolution of 1973 is a significant document in the study of regional aspirations in Punjab. A common misinterpretation is that it demanded secession. In reality, its core demand concerning Centre-State relations was:
Correct Answer: Option A (The creation of a sovereign, independent state of 'Khalistan'.)
Explanation: Detailed explanation will be updated shortly.
Q18. The implementation of the Mandal Commission's recommendations in 1990 by the V.P. Singh government is considered a watershed moment in post-independence Indian politics. Its most profound and lasting impact was:
Correct Answer: Option A (The complete eradication of caste-based discrimination.)
Explanation: Detailed explanation will be updated shortly.
Q19. Analyze the following statements regarding coalition governments in India:
I. The National Front government (1989) was a minority government that depended on outside support from both the BJP and the Left parties.
II. The United Progressive Alliance (UPA-I) government (2004-2009) was a coalition that included the Left parties as formal members of the cabinet.
Which of the statements is/are correct?
Correct Answer: Option A (Only I is correct.)
Explanation: Detailed explanation will be updated shortly.
Q20. A student of Indian politics is analyzing the "anti-Congressism" phenomenon. Which political leader is most famously associated with coining this term and developing the strategy of forging grand alliances of non-Congress parties?
Correct Answer: Option A (Jayaprakash Narayan)
Explanation: Detailed explanation will be updated shortly.